Magnetic Properties of Matter

JEE Physics · 55 questions · Page 6 of 6 · Click an option or "Show Solution" to reveal answer

Q51
The relationship between the magnetic susceptibility (x)(x) and the magnetic permeability (μ)(\mu) is given by : ( μ0\mu_0 is the permeability of free space and μT\mu_T is relative permeability)
A X=μμ01X=\dfrac{\mu}{\mu_0}-1
B X=μrμ0+1X=\dfrac{\mu_{\mathrm{r}}}{\mu_0}+1
C χ=μr+1\chi=\mu_r+1
D X=1μμ0X=1-\dfrac{\mu}{\mu_0}
Correct Answer
Option A
Solution

The relationship between magnetic susceptibility (χ)(\chi) and magnetic permeability (μ)(\mu) is expressed as follows: Relative Permeability (μr\mu_r): This is defined as the ratio of the permeability of a material (μ\mu) to the permeability of free space (μ0\mu_0).

μ=μ0μrμr=μμ0 \mu = \mu_0 \mu_r \Rightarrow \mu_r = \dfrac{\mu}{\mu_0} Magnetic Susceptibility (χ\chi): This relates to relative permeability as follows: μr=1+χχ=μr1 \mu_r = 1 + \chi \Rightarrow \chi = \mu_r - 1 Substituting the expression for μr\mu_r from above: χ=(μμ01) \chi = \left(\dfrac{\mu}{\mu_0} - 1\right) Thus, the equation shows how magnetic susceptibility is derived from the magnetic permeability relative to free space.

Q52
The percentage increase in magnetic field (B) when space within a current carrying solenoid is filled with magnesium (magnetic susceptibility χMg=1.2×105\chi_{\mathrm{Mg}}=1.2 \times 10^{-5} ) is :
A 53×105%\dfrac{5}{3} \times 10^{-5} \%
B 56×104%\dfrac{5}{6} \times 10^{-4} \%
C 56×105%\dfrac{5}{6} \times 10^{-5} \%
D 65×103%\dfrac{6}{5} \times 10^{-3} \%
Correct Answer
Option D
Solution

The percentage change in the magnetic field (B) when the space within a current-carrying solenoid is filled with magnesium is calculated as follows: We start by using the formula for percentage change in the magnetic field: % change in B=BnewBoldBold×100% \% \text{ change in } B = \dfrac{B_{\text{new}} - B_{\text{old}}}{B_{\text{old}}} \times 100\% Substituting the expressions for the magnetic field, we have: =μniμ0niμ0ni×100%=μμ0μ0×100% = \dfrac{\mu n i - \mu_0 n i}{\mu_0 n i} \times 100\% = \dfrac{\mu - \mu_0}{\mu_0} \times 100\% Where: μ\mu is the permeability of the material inserted (here, magnesium). μ0\mu_0 is the permeability of free space. nn is the number of turns per unit length of the solenoid. ii is the current through the solenoid.

Given that the relationship between the permeability of the medium (μ\mu) and relative permeability (μr\mu_r) is: μ=μ0μr \mu = \mu_0 \mu_r We can simplify this to: =μ0μrμ0μ0×100% = \dfrac{\mu_0 \mu_r - \mu_0}{\mu_0} \times 100\% Which reduces to: =(μr1)×100% = (\mu_r - 1) \times 100\% The relative permeability μr\mu_r is equal to 1+χ1 + \chi, where χ\chi is the magnetic susceptibility.

Thus, we have: =χ×100% = \chi \times 100\% When magnesium is used, with a magnetic susceptibility χMg=1.2×105\chi_{\text{Mg}} = 1.2 \times 10^{-5}, the calculation becomes: =1.2×105×100%=1.2×103% = 1.2 \times 10^{-5} \times 100\% = 1.2 \times 10^{-3}\% Therefore, the percentage increase in the magnetic field when the solenoid is filled with magnesium is 1.2×103%1.2 \times 10^{-3}\%.

Q53
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Magnetic monopoles do not exist.Reason (R): Magnetic field lines are continuous and form closed loops.In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
C (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
D Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Correct Answer
Option A
Solution

The assertion states that magnetic monopoles do not exist.

This is consistent with current experimental findings and the standard formulation of Maxwell's equations.

The reason provided is that magnetic field lines are continuous and form closed loops.

This is mathematically expressed by the Maxwell equation:

B=0\nabla \cdot B = 0

This equation tells us that there are no "sources" or "sinks" of magnetic fields (unlike electric fields, which can originate or terminate at charges).

In other words, magnetic field lines neither begin nor end; they loop continuously.

Since the fact that the magnetic field lines form closed loops is a direct consequence of the absence of isolated magnetic charges (monopoles), the reason correctly explains the assertion.

Thus, both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

The most appropriate answer is Option A.

Q54
A magnetic dipole experiences a torque of 803 N m80 \sqrt{3} \mathrm{~N} \mathrm{~m} when placed in uniform magnetic field in such a way that dipole moment makes angle of 6060^{\circ} with magnetic field. The potential energy of the dipole is :
A  403 J \text{ }-40 \sqrt{3} \mathrm{~J}
B -80 J
C 80 J
D -60 J
Correct Answer
Option B
Solution

To determine the potential energy of a magnetic dipole in a uniform magnetic field, we start with the torque equation: τ=M×B=MBsin60 \tau = M \times B = MB \sin 60^\circ Given that τ=803N m\tau = 80 \sqrt{3} \, \text{N m} and sin60=32\sin 60^\circ = \dfrac{\sqrt{3}}{2}, we can equate and solve for MBMB: MB32=803 MB \dfrac{\sqrt{3}}{2} = 80 \sqrt{3} Solving for MBMB, we find: MB=160 MB = 160 The potential energy UU of the dipole in the magnetic field is given by: U=MB=MBcos60 U = -M \cdot B = -MB \cos 60^\circ Substituting in cos60=12\cos 60^\circ = \dfrac{1}{2}, we calculate: U=160×12=80J U = -160 \times \dfrac{1}{2} = -80 \, \text{J} Thus, the potential energy of the dipole is 80J-80 \, \text{J}.

Q55
A bar magnet is demagnetized by inserting it inside a solenoid of length 0.2 m, 100 turns, and carrying a current of 5.2 A. The corecivity of the bar magnet is :
A 285 A/m
B 2600 A/m
C 520 A/m
D 1200 A/m
Correct Answer
Option B
Solution

Coercivity, H =

Bμ0{B \over {{\mu _0}}}

Inside solenoid the magnetic field, B = μ\mu0ni \therefore H =

μ0niμ0{{{\mu _0}ni} \over {{\mu _0}}}

= ni =

N×i{N \over \ell } \times i

=

1000.2×5.2{{100} \over {0.2}} \times 5.2

= 2600 A/m

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